TheNZThrower
Active Member
According to a Cato Institute post by Randal O'Toole, the fact that the nationwide mode share of rail transport has declined over time is somehow evidence of High-Speed Rail being impractical:
However, I have a few reasons why I think this data is presented in a misleading manner:
He cites this mode share table that's claimed to be from the Japanese Ministry of Transport, which shows the transport modal share for rail decreasing from 1950.When Japan opened its first high‐speed rail line in 1964, nearly 70 percent of passenger travel was by rail and only 12 percent by automobile. Although Japan’s lines are considered highly successful, today only 25 percent of passenger travel is by rail and nearly 70 percent by auto.
However, I have a few reasons why I think this data is presented in a misleading manner:
- There is no methodology outlined for the data, nor any links to the original source
- This could be referring to nationwide modal share
- Which means that if this were true, this would include routes where passenger rail routes don't exist, as well as routes of all distances
- This means that this includes routes over distances where High-Speed Rail would be impractical, or non-existent
- Which means that if this were true, this would include routes where passenger rail routes don't exist, as well as routes of all distances